• kieron115
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    6 months ago
    1. Pedophilia has to do with physical appearance (attaction to prepubescence).
    2. She was like 20-25% of the way through her lifespan.

    Saying “she was 2 years old” would only mean something if she had a similar developmental cycle to humans.

    • Archangel1313@lemmy.ca
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      6 months ago

      Pedophilia is an age thing. You can try to normalize it all you want, but it just comes off sounding like a Lolicon argument. “She’s physically mature at that age”, sounds a lot like “But she only looks like a child…she’s actually 200 years old.”

      • kieron115
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        6 months ago

        Fuck off, I’m quoting definitions from the DSM-5 and the ICD-11 - not trying to “normalize” a psychological disorder. Go back to reddit. If you want to get into this argument then he would be a infantophile, not a pedophile. But he is neither.

        https://icd.who.int/browse/2025-01/mms/en#517058174